b)                    We conclude that porneia can refer to different types of sexual sin depending on the context. If porneia in Matt. 5:32 and Matt. 19:9 means general immorality and not some specific kind of immorality, how can one explain the absence of this exception clause in the parallel passages in Mark 10:2-12 and Luke 16:18? And why does Paul not refer to immorality as a legitimate reason for divorce in Romans 7:2-3 and 1 Corinthians 7:10-16, 39-40? Paul’s failure to mention immorality as a grounds for divorce is all the more puzzling since he specifically states he is passing on what the Lord has said (1 Cor. 7:10-11).

                                                       c)                     It seems to me that one must consider that while Mark, Luke, Romans and 1 Corinthians were written to Gentile audiences, Matthew was written to a Jewish audience. What was the Jewish consideration to which Jesus may have been referring? Did porneia have a restrictive meaning in a Jewish context? I believe that it did. I believe it may have referred to illicit sex during the Jewish betrothal period, when a couple had made a binding legal agreement (covenant) but had not yet consummated their marriage. There is a ready illustration of this meaning right in the book of Matthew. When Joseph discovered Mary was pregnant, being a righteous man, he was prepared to divorce her secretly (Matthew 1:19, where "divorce" is the same word as in Matt. 5:32 and Matt. 19:9). In this case, since Mary had been unfaithful to him, Joseph could have divorced Mary and been a righteous man. He could have married another woman without committing adultery against Mary because their marriage had never been consummated.

                                                       d)                    Another possible meaning of porneia is "marriage between near relatives [based on] (Lev. 18; Acts 15:29)” (Ryrie Study Bible note on Matt. 5:32). The decision at which the conferees at the Jerusalem Council arrived in Acts 15:1-35 was that Gentile converts to Christianity should not be forced to observe the Law of Moses, including circumcision. However, to avoid offending Jewish brethren they were to abstain from eating things sacrificed to idols, meat with blood still in it, meat from animals that had been strangled, and from porneia (Acts 15:19-20, 28-29). In this context porneia could hardly have meant immorality in general, for that is always wrong. It would have had to mean a kind of immorality particularly offensive to Jews, if not to Gentiles.

                                                       e)                    If either or both of these latter two views are correct, there is an extremely limited application to today's Gentile church.

                                          2)          Who may remarry?

                                                       a)                    While most who hold that porneia is immorality also hold that the innocent party has the right to remarry, this is by no means certain. Grammatically, the exception clause in Matthew 19:9, "except for porneia," could apply to the divorce and remarriage, or it could apply only to the divorce. In fact, however, Paul E. Steele writes, "There is no known case in Greek literature where the "exception clause," when it is in this position, includes both verbs" (Paul E. Steele, Divorce – A Modern Tragedy, IBYC, a paper presented at the National conference on Divorce and Remarriage, Milwaukee, Wisconsin, September 17-18, 1981, p. 15). His conclusion is that the exception refers to divorce, but not to remarriage.

                                                       b)                    Furthermore, all the Greek and Latin writers of the first five centuries with the exception of one held that spouses were bound to the marriage until the death of one of them. When a marriage partner was guilty of unchastity, usually understood to mean adultery, the other was expected to separate but did not have the right to remarry. Their view remained the standard view of the Church until Erasmus in the 16th century suggested the right to remarry on charitable grounds (Heth, William, Divorce, But No Remarriage, a contribution to the book, Divorce and Remarriage: Four Christian Views, H. Wayne House, Editor (Downers Grove, Illinois: Intervarsity Press 1990), p. 96). Heth concludes that what Matt. 19:9 is saying is that "Divorcing for reasons other than marital unfaithfulness is forbidden, and remarriage after every divorce is adulterous"(p. 104).

                                                       c)                     In fact, Jesus made absolute and unqualified statements in Mark 10:11-12, "Whoever divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her; and if she herself divorces her husband and marries another, man, she is committing adultery." Similarly, with no exceptions in Luke 16:18 He said, "Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery; and he who marries one who is divorced from a husband commits adultery."

                                         3)                   In summary it would seem either that Jesus' exception had only narrow Jewish implications and/or that in any case the innocent party was not given permission to remarry.

                           e.                  Jesus' disciples were shocked at His conservative views. Their reaction was that if this is how restrictive marriage is, it would be "better not to marry" (Matthew 19:10).

                           f.                   Jesus' response, in context, was that only believers (in contrast to the Pharisees, for example), who had been given this insight, would find the Divine grace to accept this standard (Matthew 19:11). He identified them as those willing to remain single for the sake of the kingdom of heaven (19:12) (Heth, pp. 105-107). This coincides with the Apostle Paul's viewpoint that serving Christ without the domestic concerns of married life is both more efficient and to be pursued (1 Corinthians 7:32-35).

            3.         Divorce, Death, and Remarriage as Viewed by the Apostle Paul in the Epistles.

                           a.                  Paul's statement that only death terminates a marriage is in agreement with Jesus' position on divorce and remarriage.

                                         1)                   In Romans 7:2-3, Paul states that "the married woman is bound by law to her husband while he is living; but if her husband dies, she is released from the law concerning the husband." But what if she should remarry anyway? "So then if, while her husband is living, she is joined to another man, she shall be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from the law so that she is not an adulteress, though she is joined to another man."

                                         2)                   In 1 Corinthians 7:39 he repeats the idea: "A wife is bound as long as her husband lives; but if her husband is dead, she is free to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord."

                           b.          Paul never promotes divorce as the solution to marital problems. (1 Corinthians 7).

                                         1)                   He promotes the validity of the single life throughout Chapter 7 (see Romans 7:1,6-7,8,17-24,26-27,32-35, 37,38,40).

                                         2)                   He tells Christians not to divorce (Rom. 7:10-11, and here he claims to be passing on what Christ had previously taught).

                                         3)                  He tells a believer married to an unbeliever not to divorce, for this offers the best chance of the unbeliever's salvation (Rom. 7:12-16).

                           c.          When a divorce does occur, Paul never suggests remarriage.

                                         1)                   For Christians who divorce despite instructions not to, his only counsel is to remain single or to be reconciled with the original partner. He does not offer the alleged exception of "remarriage if immorality has taken place", though he claims to be passing on what Jesus has said about the subject (Rom. 7:10-11).

                                         2)                   For Christians whose unbelieving spouses desert despite the goodwill of the believer, his only instruction is to permit them to depart (Rom. 7:15).

                                                       a)                    His statement that the believer is not under bondage does not mean he is freed from the marriage bond (a different word is used to describe that in 7:39; furthermore he has said that only death ends a marriage – Rom. 7:39, cf. Romans 7:2-3).

                                                       b)                    It means only that he is not duty-bound to prevent his unbelieving spouse from leaving at all costs, for "God has called us to peace." This peaceful reaction to the departure of the unbelieving spouse is deemed to be the best way, again, to secure the possible salvation of the unbeliever (Rom. 7:16).

            4.        In summary, it seems best to conclude that neither unfaithfulness nor even divorce ends a marriage in God's sight, though divorce certainly terminates a marriage in man’s sight. It seems that in God’s sight, only death terminates what He has joined together.

C.     Conclusion:

             1.                God established marriage as a perpetual unbroken union between two people joined together by God Himself. Because of man's hard-heartedness, God had to regulate abuses of divorce and remarriage among His chosen people, but His attitude of hatred toward the practice of divorce did not waver.

             2.               When Jesus was pressed for His views, He raised the standard above the Law and the expectations of even the most conservative Jewish people. Divorce was never commanded, but it could be permitted without guilt in the case of a spouse whose partner committed porneia. It seems doubtful that Jesus sanctioned remarriage under any circumstance, and if He did, porneia had a special Jewish, not Gentile application anyway.

             3.               This conclusion is reinforced by a uniform view in the epistles. The clear teaching of Matthew 5:31-32, Mark 10:2-12, Luke 16:18, Romans 7:1-3, and 1 Corinthians 7:10-16, 39 must govern the lone and somewhat obscure exception of Matthew 19:9, not vice versa. Whether the reader agrees with my interpretation or not, Jesus’ first and best answer to the question of divorce was this: “What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate (Matt. 19:6; Mark 10:9).”

             4.               To those who find themselves wishing to exit their marriage, I encourage you to stay where you are. When the Apostle Paul was in great duress, God assured, "My grace is sufficient for you, for power is perfected in weakness (2 Corinthians 12:9)."

             5.               To those who find themselves in the single state through divorce, whether of their own choosing or not, though I'm sure you go through deep agonies of soul in loneliness, I would encourage you to be "content with what you have; for He Himself has said, 'I will never desert you, nor will I ever forsake you' (Hebrews 13:5)." I would encourage you to serve the Lord singly, efficiently and with joy, for the sake of the Kingdom of Heaven (Matthew 19:12).

Marriage, Divorce, and Remarriage

by James T. Bartsch, WordExplain.com

July, 2007

Updated August 21, 2015

Go to What does the Bible say about Marriage?

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