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 Whom Does God Save and How?
Part 5
Some Difficult Questions Whom did Jesus say could come to Him?
John 6:43-44
John 6:60-65
Matt. 22:14 Matt. 24:22 Matt. 24:24 Matt. 24:31 Mark 13:20 Mark 13:22 Mark 13:27 Luke 18:7 Luke 23:35 Rom. 8:33 Rom. 16:13 Col. 3:12 1 Timothy 5:21 2 Tim. 2:10 Titus 1:1 1 Peter 1:1-3 1 Peter 2:4 1 Peter 2:6 1 Peter 2:9 2 John 1:1 2 John 1:13 Rev. 17:14 What do the following Scriptures say about "choosing"? This is the verb eklégomai (1586). Mark 13:20
Luke 6:13 Luke 9:35 John 6:70 John 13:18 John 15:16 John 15:19 Acts 1:2 Acts 13:17 Acts 15:7 1 Cor. 1:27 1 Cor. 1:28 Eph. 1:4 James 2:5 What do the following Scriptures say about God's predestining? The verb "predestine" is proorídzō (4309), "to decide beforehand" (Accordance). Acts 4:27, 28
Romans 8:29, 20 1 Cor. 2:7 Eph. 1:5. (See the context of Eph. 1:3-6) Eph. 1:11. (See the context of Eph. 1:7-12) Is anyone capable of doing the right thing, or of choosing God without Divine assistance? Is there anyone righteous? (Rom. 3:10)
Is there anyone who really understands? (Rom. 3:11) Is there anyone who seeks for God? (Rom. 3:11) Is there anyone who has not turned aside from doing the right thing? (Rom. 3:12) Is there anyone who does good? (Rom. 3:12) How would you describe peoples' throats? (Rom. 3:13) How would you describe peoples' tongues? (Rom. 3:13) How would you describe peoples' mouths? (Rom. 3:14) How would you describe peoples' feet? (Rom. 3:15) How would you describe peoples' paths? (Rom. 3:16) Do people know the path of peace? (Rom. 3:17) How would you describe peoples' eyes? (Rom. 3:18) Can anyone justify himself before God? (Rom. 3:19) Is anyone not accountable to God? (Rom. 3:19) Can anyone keep any set of laws to justify himself before God? (Rom. 3:20) Is God obligated to save anyone? What is the meaning of "foreknowledge"? The noun "foreknowledge" translates the Greek noun prógnōsis (4628). It is defined by Accordance as "foreknowledge/forechoice." It is used but twice in the NT. Acts 2:23. In this context does it mean God merely foreknew what was going to happen or that He pre-arranged it?
1 Pet. 1:2. This verse uses the word "foreknowledge." The context is 1 Pet. 1:1,2, wherein Peter writes to those residing as aliens ... who are chosen (eklektós, 1588) according to the foreknowledge (prógnōsis, 4628) of God the Father, by the sanctifying work of the Spirit, to obey Jesus Christ and be sprinkled with His blood ...." Question: Does this foreknowledge
mean that, since God knew in advance who would trust in Jesus and who
would not, He chose people on that basis?
Or, does it mean that God knew these people as His own from eternity past and therefore He chose them? I know Southern Baptists who argue for the first meaning. But does that view make God a prisoner to human actions? Furthermore, if God used the sanctifying work of the Holy Spirit, didn't He at least put His thumb on the scale? What is the meaning of the verb "to foreknow"? The Greek verb is proginō´skō (4267) is defined in Accordance as "to know ahead of time, choose ahead of time." It is defined in OBU
as follows: "I. to have knowledge before hand II. to foreknow 1. of
those whom God elected to salvation III. to predestinate." It is used
five times in the NT: Acts 26:5; Rom. 8:29; Rom. 11:2; 1 Pet. 1:20; 2
Pet. 3:17. Acts 26:5. The verb here is a Present Active Participle. What is the meaning here?
Rom. 8:29. The verb here is Aorist Indicative Active. The context is Rom. 8:26, 27, 28, 29, 30. Is the foreknowing merely knowing in advance what would happen? or is it foreknowing someone intimately from eternity past and making certain that a guaranteed chain of events occurs? We are familiar, for example, with the sense of the common verb "to know," wherein Jesus said, "My sheep hear My voice, and I know
them, and they follow Me; and I give eternal life to them, and
they will never perish; and no one will snatch them out of My hand."
(John 10:27, 28). The words "I know" are the 1st Singular Present Indicative Active of the verb ginō´skō (1097).
This verb means "to know, come to know, recognize" (Accordance). But in
this context the verb cannot possibly mean merely that Jesus is
cognizant of the identity of His sheep. It means far more than that. It
means He knows His sheep intimately, claiming them as His own, and
protecting them from all harm for eternity.
And that is, I believe the sense in which Scripture, in certain contexts, uses the verb "foreknow," meaning that both God and Jesus foreknew their sheep intimately from eternity past, claimed them as their own, and participated in the ongoing process of protecting them from all harm for eternity. I believe that meaning is to be found in Rom. 8:29 and in Romans 11:2. That certainly is the sense in which God the Father foreknew from eternity past the Lamb, Christ, who appeared in these last times for the sake of us believers (1 Pet. 1:17, 18, 19, 20, 21). Romans 11:2. The verb "He foreknew" is the 3rd Singular Aorist Active Indicative of the verb proginō´skō (4267). Does this statement by Paul say that God foreknew facts about the Jewish people? Or does it say He foreknew them? And, in the context of Rom. 11:1, 2, what does that mean? For further context, read Rom. 11:1-6 to see what Paul meant. 1 Peter 1:20. The topic of this passage is Jesus Christ, the Lamb of God. What is this verse saying about Him? The word "foreknown" is the Perfect Passive Participle of the verb proginō´skō (4267). How long has He been foreknown?
Foreknown by whom? Does this mean that God foreknew facts about Jesus, what He would or would not do? Or does it mean He knew Him intimately from eternity past? 2 Peter 3:17. The words "knowing this beforehand" translate the Present Active Participle Nominative Masculine Plural of the verb proginō´skō (4267). Does this verse talk about foreknowing people?
Or does it talk about foreknowing certain facts? The context of this verse is 2 Pet. 3:14-18 What is your conclusion about the meaning of this verb proginō´skō (4267) when it is applied to people? Updated November 18, 2024
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